My thoughts returned to this thread when earlier today I heard the astonishing claim that if the Scots vote for independence in September, then they would not be allowed to vote in the UK General Election in 1915.
My astonishment lies in the idea behind this news: that somehow foreigners, from a foreign country (which is what the Scots will be if they vote Yes) should even be considered as somehow being eligible to vote in the General Election of a foreign country (which is what the UK would then be to them)!
Perhaps I am missing something here? Perhaps a Yes vote would not in some way be effective until after 1915? Can anyone please explain?
Tony (who continues to sincerely hope that the vote will be No, while fully accepting that the Scots must decide for themselves).
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